Practice test

Wbcs prelims 2026 mock test 06 - Test Set 1

Review 198 exam-focused questions with detailed explanations, then start the interactive test when you are ready.

198 questions

Questions and explanations

  1. Question 1

    Babies _________ when they are hungry.
    1. cries
    2. cried
    3. are crying
    4. cry
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  2. Question 2

    Here is the man _________ you asked __________.
    1. whom, about
    2. that, for
    3. for, from
    4. this for
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  3. Question 3

    Fill in the blank with the correct homonym: "He is a man of high moral _____."
    1. principals
    2. principles
    3. princepals
    4. princples
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  4. Question 4

    Convert the given sentence into an interrogative sentence:

    “Honesty is the best policy”
    1. Is honesty the best policy?
    2. Is not honesty the best policy?
    3. Is honesty not the best policy?
    4. Why is honesty the best policy?
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  5. Question 5

    I gave him a piece of my mind.
    1. Expressed love
    2. Fell in love
    3. Expressed anguish
    4. Trusted him
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  6. Question 6

    The speaker spoke at length in fine he urged his audience to be patriotic.
    1. In fine language
    2. With a noble gesture
    3. In telling phrases
    4. In conclusion
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  7. Question 7

    Direction: match the underline word in each of the following sentence with the correct parts of speech and indicate your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

    The artist pranced around the stage singing enthusiastically.
    1. Noun
    2. Adjective
    3. Adverb
    4. Verb
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  8. Question 8

    In Manipur, the most important piece of Literary work that continues to __________ a sense of patriotism is ‘Khongjom Parva’
    1. instil
    2. install
    3. installs
    4. installed
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  9. Question 9

    Arrival and departure on the same day in addition to the tight work schedule, would be cutting in line.
    1. Nerve-racking
    2. Wise
    3. Leaving oneself the minimum time
    4. Relaxing
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  10. Question 10

    Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underline word:
    1. erican Independence was a great blow to the invincible image of Great Britain. A. vulnerable
    2. impregnable
    3. unbeatable
    4. insurmountable
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  11. Question 11

    Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

    -P: was gradually engulfing the society with its concomitant

    -Q: one could not overlook the diminishing religiosity which

    -R: while plays with mythological content continued to be in vogue

    -S: implication for the stage from the third decade of the twentieth century
    1. PQRS
    2. RQPS
    3. QPSR
    4. QRPS
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  12. Question 12

    Match the underline word in each of the following with the correct parts of speech and indicate your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

    The sun shone through the dull grey clouds.
    1. Noun
    2. Adverb
    3. Verb
    4. Adjective
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  13. Question 13

    Match the underline word with the correct parts of speech

    Cash machines permit people to withdraw money at any time.
    1. Verb
    2. Noun
    3. sh machines permit people to withdraw money at any time. A. Verb B. Noun C. Pronoun
    4. Adverb
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  14. Question 14

    Improve the sentence among the following options:

    If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.
    1. If the room was brighter
    2. If the room are brighter
    3. Had the room been brighter
    4. No improvement
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  15. Question 15

    I just need to take rest and then I’ll be as right as rain.
    1. To be in good mental and physical state
    2. To be physically active
    3. To be able to recall the past events
    4. To be able to work for long time
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  16. Question 16

    Complete the sentence:

    His behaviour is so unpredictable that he ________________
    1. never depends upon others for getting his work done
    2. is seldom trusted by others
    3. always insists on getting the work completed on time
    4. seldom trusts others as far as the work schedule is concerned
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  17. Question 17

    Choose the correct spelt word:
    1. Affedevit
    2. Afidevit
    3. Affidevit
    4. Affidavit
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  18. Question 18

    Change the voice:

    Has anybody answered your question?
    1. Has your question been answered?
    2. Your question has been answered?
    3. Anybody has answered your question?
    4. Have you answered your question?
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  19. Question 19

    Fill the blank with the most appropriate word.

    If I fail the exam, I ___________ it again.
    1. took
    2. wouldn’t take
    3. will take
    4. didn’t take
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  20. Question 20

    Choose the opposite meaning of the word: Development
    1. Retardation
    2. Progress
    3. Impunity
    4. Retrogression
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  21. Question 21

    Choose the same meaning of the following word.

    Diligent
    1. Fool
    2. Unhappy
    3. Hardworking
    4. igent A. Fool B. Unhappy C. Hardworking D. Disappointment
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  22. Question 22

    The teacher will ____________ a new chapter tomorrow.
    1. take over
    2. take up
    3. take down
    4. take off
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  23. Question 23

    The two boys fell ________ but soon become friends again.
    1. Away
    2. Forward
    3. On
    4. Out
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  24. Question 24

    Apiculture is the study of -
    1. Fish
    2. Birds
    3. Honeybee
    4. Relics
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  25. Question 25

    A preparation for killing insects is
    1. Parasite
    2. Insecticide
    3. Humus
    4. Rodent
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  26. Question 26

    Which is considered as oldest civilization of the world?
    1. Mesopotamian Civilization
    2. Egyptian Civilization
    3. Harappan Civilization
    4. Chinese Civilization
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  27. Question 27

    Which was the largest Indian site of Indus Civilization?
    1. Dholavira
    2. Lothal
    3. Chanhudaro
    4. Mohenjodaro
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  28. Question 28

    Vedic Culture belongs to
    1. 1500 BC to 600 BC
    2. 1450 BC to 550 BC
    3. 1400 BC to 500 BC
    4. 1300 BC to 400 BC
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  29. Question 29

    Ashoka carved out rock-cut caves at Barabar and Nagarjun hills in Bihar for one of the following:
    1. Hinayana
    2. Digambara
    3. Ajivika
    4. Mahayana
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  30. Question 30

    Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with the aspects of
    1. Social life
    2. Economic life
    3. Political policies
    4. Religious life
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  31. Question 31

    Which of the following inscription was found on iron pillar?
    1. Mehrauli
    2. Saranath
    3. Sanchi
    4. Babru
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  32. Question 32

    Who started Gupta Era?
    1. ChandraGupta I
    2. ChandraGupta II
    3. SamudraGupta
    4. SkandaGupta
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  33. Question 33

    During which Gupta king’s reign did the Chinese traveller Fa hien visit India?
    1. Skandgupta
    2. Samudragupta
    3. Chandragupta II
    4. Chandragupta I
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  34. Question 34

    The ancient Indian play Mudrarakshasa of Visakhadutt has its subject on:
    1. a romantic story of an Aryan prince and a tribal woman
    2. a conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore
    3. the story of the power struggle between two Aryan
    4. the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta
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  35. Question 35

    Which one of the following periods is also known as Chalcolithic Age?
    1. Old Stone Age
    2. New Stone Age
    3. Copper Age
    4. Iron Age
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  36. Question 36

    The capital of Magadha was shifted from Rajgriha to
    1. Ujjaini
    2. Patliputra
    3. Varanasi
    4. Kannauj
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  37. Question 37

    Ghazi Malik was the founder of which dynasty?
    1. Tughlaq
    2. Khilji
    3. Sayyid
    4. Lodhi
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  38. Question 38

    Who was the medieval king responsible for introducing the silver coin called ‘tanka’ in North India?
    1. Iltutmish
    2. Razia
    3. Alauddin Khalji
    4. Mohammad bin Tughlaq
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  39. Question 39

    The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?
    1. Village Chieftains
    2. Senior Civil Servants
    3. Tributary Chiefs
    4. Military Commanders
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  40. Question 40

    The important source for Akbar’s reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?
    1. Arif Qandahari
    2. Bayazid Bayat
    3. Abdul Qadir Badauni
    4. Nizamuddin Ahmad
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  41. Question 41

    What was the occasion for Rana Kumbha’s construction of the “tower of victory’’ at Chittor ?
    1. His victory against Rao Jodha of Marwar
    2. His victory against Mahmud Khalji of Malwa
    3. His victory against Ahmed Shah of Gujarat
    4. His victory against Ibrahim Shah of Bengal
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  42. Question 42

    The battle of Dharmat was fought between:
    1. Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
    2. Babar and the Afghans
    3. Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
    4. Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
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  43. Question 43

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Permanent Settlement ?
    1. The Permanent Settlement vested landownership rights in the Zamindar
    2. The Permanent Settlement continued to pay attention to the customary occupancy rights of peasants
    3. The burden of the high revenue assessment was shifted to the peasants under the Permanent Settlement
    4. The condition of the actual cultivators of the land declined under Permanent Settlement
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  44. Question 44

    Which Commission under the British rule prepared “Famine Code" ?
    1. Welby Commission
    2. Strachey Commission
    3. Hunter Commission
    4. None of the above
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  45. Question 45

    The title ‘Raja’ was conferred on Ram Mohun Roy by the Mughal emperor:
    1. Jahandar Shah
    2. Mohammad Shah
    3. Akbar II
    4. Bahadur Shah Zafar
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  46. Question 46

    Which one among the following prominently rose in revolt against the British in 1857?
    1. Punjab Army
    2. Madras Regiment
    3. Awadh Regiment
    4. Bengal Army
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  47. Question 47

    Satya Shodhak Samaj organized:
    1. a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
    2. a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
    3. an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
    4. a peasant movement in Punjab
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  48. Question 48

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak used it to inculcate a spirit of Hindu nationalism among people?
    1. Vibhuti Sangam
    2. Ganapati Festival
    3. Gaurakshini Sabha
    4. Nagari Pracharini Sabha
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  49. Question 49

    Which European nation was first in bringing printing press to India?
    1. England
    2. France
    3. Portugal
    4. Holland
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  50. Question 50

    According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the Earth is:

    -1. round

    -2. spherical

    -3. close to that of a sphere

    -4. an oblate ellipsoid
    1. 2, 3 and 4
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 3 and 4
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  51. Question 51

    The line joining points with equal cloud cover is called:
    1. Isobar
    2. Isoneph
    3. Isohytes
    4. Isotach
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  52. Question 52

    How many Indian states share their boundaries with Nepal?
    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 8
    4. 5
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  53. Question 53

    Nine Degree Channel separates:
    1. Car Nicobar and Great Nicobar
    2. Lakshadweep and Minicoy
    3. Little Andaman and Car Nicobar
    4. North Andaman and South Andaman
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  54. Question 54

    The Valley of Kashmir is located in between the following ranges
    1. Zaskar and Pir Panjal
    2. Zaskar and Karakoram
    3. Karakoram and Shiwalik
    4. Zaskar and Shiwalik
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  55. Question 55

    Palghat is situated between:
    1. The Nilgiris and the Cardamon Hills
    2. The Nilgiris and the Anaimalai Hills
    3. The Anaimalai Hills and the Cardamon Hills
    4. The Cardamon Hills and Palini Hills
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  56. Question 56

    Which one of the following is the correct Northward sequence of the relief features?
    1. Zanskar Ranges, Pirpanjal Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Karakoram Ranges
    2. Pirpanjal Ranges, Zanskar Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Karakoram Ranges
    3. Karakoram Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Zanskar Ranges, Pirpanjal Ranges
    4. Pirpanjal Ranges, Ladakh Ranges, Zanskar Ranges, Karakoram Ranges
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  57. Question 57

    The Deccan Trap Formation was caused by:
    1. shield eruption
    2. composite eruption
    3. caldera eruption
    4. flood basalt eruption
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  58. Question 58

    Which of the following rivers is famous for its fault valley drainage?
    1. Chambal
    2. Damodar
    3. Gandak
    4. Ramaganga
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  59. Question 59

    Gersoppa Falls is formed by which one of the following rivers?
    1. Lohit
    2. Tungabhadra
    3. Sharavati
    4. Krishna
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  60. Question 60

    The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the following types of deposits?
    1. Aeolian and glacial
    2. Fluvial
    3. Lacustrine
    4. Volcanic
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  61. Question 61

    Consider the following statements:

    -1. Tamil Nadu is the only area which receives about half of its rainfall from north-east monsoon winds.

    -2. Kerala is the only state receiving very heavy rainfall from the south-west monsoon winds.

    -3. In India, the south-west monsoon is stronger than the north-east monsoon.

    Which of these are correct statements?
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 2 and 3
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  62. Question 62

    Largest west flowing river of the peninsular India is -
    1. Tapti
    2. Kaveri
    3. Krishna
    4. Narmada
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  63. Question 63

    Indra Gandhi Zoological Park is located in:
    1. Hydrabad
    2. Kolkata
    3. Vishakhapatnam
    4. Ahmedabad
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  64. Question 64

    The headquarter of the North Western Railway Zone is located in -
    1. Bhopal
    2. Gwalior
    3. Uday
    4. Jaipur
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  65. Question 65

    In Kolkata, the first Metro Railway was inaugurated in
    1. 1984
    2. 1982
    3. 1986
    4. 1884
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  66. Question 66

    In which of the following states is Ashtamudi Lake situated?
    1. Tamil Nadu
    2. Odisha
    3. Kerala
    4. Andhra Pradesh
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  67. Question 67

    A/an _______ is the wide end of a river that meets the sea.
    1. Creek
    2. Estuary
    3. Gorge
    4. Meander
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  68. Question 68

    On which river is Polavaram irrigation project being built?
    1. Kaveri
    2. Narmada
    3. Godavari
    4. Kaveri
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  69. Question 69

    Jadugra is an important mine for which of the following?
    1. Uranium
    2. Manganese
    3. Copper
    4. Coal
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  70. Question 70

    Which among the following is the largest coalfield in India?
    1. Talcher
    2. Rampur
    3. Yellandu
    4. Jharia
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  71. Question 71

    ‘Shifting Cultivation’ is also named as ________ in North East India.
    1. Ladang
    2. Chena
    3. Jhum
    4. Logan
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  72. Question 72

    Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of Black soil?
    1. It is best soil for cotton cultivation
    2. It has low water retaining capacity
    3. It is rich in iron, lime and magnesium
    4. The texture is clayey
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  73. Question 73

    Which of the following is the largest river island in India?
    1. Divar Island
    2. Diu Island
    3. Majuli Island
    4. Gundu Island
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  74. Question 74

    Who was the author of the book "The Problems of the East"?
    1. Lawrence
    2. Lytton
    3. Curzon
    4. Churchill
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  75. Question 75

    The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’ was first published under the title of-
    1. Rashtra Jagrati
    2. Bharat Vidhata
    3. Tatva Bodhini
    4. None of these
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  76. Question 76

    The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a milestone in Indian freedom struggle, because:
    1. it declared war on the British Empire
    2. it anointed Jawaharlal Nehru as the future Prime Minister of India
    3. of the introduction of the idea of a planning commission
    4. of the acceptance of the Government of India Act, 1935 by the Congress
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  77. Question 77

    Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement?
    1. Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement
    2. It was not supported by the Congress
    3. It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must retain control over Muslim sacred spaces in the erstwhile Ottoman empire
    4. It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
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  78. Question 78

    Who among the following leaders did NOT participate in the Second Round Table Conference?
    1. M.K. Gandhi
    2. Sarojini Naidu
    3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    4. Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya
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  79. Question 79

    Which one of the following had created the office of the Secretary of State for India?
    1. The Councils Act 1861
    2. The Government of India Act 1858
    3. The Morley-Minto reforms
    4. Montague Chelmsford reforms
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  80. Question 80

    Madan Lal Dhingra murdered Curzon Wyllie in London in 1909 as a protest against
    1. the indiscriminate arrest of the Ghadarites
    2. the inhuman transportation and hanging of Indian youth
    3. the imprisonment of Lal, Bal & Pal
    4. the partition of Bengal
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  81. Question 81

    Who founded the “Servants of India Society”?
    1. Annie Besant
    2. B. G. Tilak
    3. M. G. Ranade
    4. G. K. Gokhale
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  82. Question 82

    The partition of Bengal was annulled in -
    1. 1905
    2. 1911
    3. 1901
    4. 1947
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  83. Question 83

    Who founded the “Anglo-Vedic Society” collage?
    1. Dayanand Saraswati
    2. Atmaram Panduranga
    3. M. G. Ranade
    4. Lala Hansraj
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  84. Question 84

    Who founded the ‘Indian National Congress’?
    1. A. O. Hume
    2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    3. Motilal Nehru
    4. Surendra Nath Banerjee
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  85. Question 85

    Who started newspaper Shom Prakash?
    1. Dayaram Saraswati
    2. Raja Rammohon Roy
    3. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
    4. Surendranath Banerjee
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  86. Question 86

    The Muslim League was established in -
    1. 1901
    2. 1906
    3. 1910
    4. 1915
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  87. Question 87

    ‘Kuka Movement’ is associated with which of the following states?
    1. Assam
    2. Bengal
    3. Punjab
    4. Maharashtra
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  88. Question 88

    Which phase is considered to the Liberal phase of Indian National Congress?
    1. 1885 - 1895
    2. 1885 - 1905
    3. 1905- - 1915
    4. 1895 - 1925
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  89. Question 89

    Who among these was never elected to the Presidentship of INC?
    1. George Yule
    2. Alfred Webb
    3. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
    4. Nawab Syed
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  90. Question 90

    Hunter Commission was appointed to enquire into:
    1. Tinkathia system
    2. Kakori conspiracy
    3. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
    4. Dandi March
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  91. Question 91

    The Sepoy Mutiny in India started from ________.
    1. Rajkot
    2. Meerut
    3. Bareilly
    4. Champaran
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  92. Question 92

    Lala Lajpat Rai was the founder of which of the following banks?
    1. Union Bank of India
    2. State Bank of India
    3. Bank of Baroda
    4. Punjab National Bank
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  93. Question 93

    The split of Congress occurred in which of the following sessions?
    1. Karachi Session 1934
    2. Lahore Session 1927
    3. Kanpur Session 1922
    4. Surat Session 1907
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  94. Question 94

    When was the National Anthem adopted in its Hindi version?
    1. 24 January, 1950
    2. 26 January, 1950
    3. 2 October, 1948
    4. 15 August, 1947
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  95. Question 95

    The princely state of Hyderabad was brought under the Indian Union in the year ______.
    1. 1950
    2. 1952
    3. 1948
    4. 1963
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  96. Question 96

    Guru Gobind Singh was the ________Sikh Guru.
    1. eighth
    2. tenth
    3. ninth
    4. fifth
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  97. Question 97

    Which of the following Indians was one of the founders of Dartington Hall School in Japan?
    1. Subhash Chandra Bose
    2. Dadabhai Naoroji
    3. Swami Vivekananda
    4. Rabindranath Tagore
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  98. Question 98

    During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following started the weekly Yugantar in April 1906?
    1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Bhupendranath Dutta
    2. Jnanendranath Basu and Bipin Chandra Pal
    3. Aswini Kumar Dutta and Satish Chandra Mukherji
    4. Krishna Kumar Mitra and Hem Chandra Kanungo
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  99. Question 99

    Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?
    1. Sachidananda Sinha
    2. B. R. Ambedkar
    3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    4. P. Upendra
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  100. Question 100

    The Indian Federation is based on the pattern of:
    1. Switzerland
    2. USA
    3. Russia
    4. Canada
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  101. Question 101

    Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

    -1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

    -2. They are correlative to legal duties.
    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
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  102. Question 102

    The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?
    1. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
    2. Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram
    3. Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura
    4. Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh
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  103. Question 103

    The quorum requirements in the Rajya Sabha is
    1. 25
    2. 50
    3. 100
    4. 126
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  104. Question 104

    Who is the first Law officer of the Government of India?
    1. Chief Justice of India
    2. Union Law Minister
    3. Attorney General of India
    4. Law Secretary
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  105. Question 105

    Judge of Supreme Court retire at the age of
    1. 60 Years
    2. 62 Years
    3. 65 Years
    4. 70 Years
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  106. Question 106

    The Election Commission of India is constructed by the __________.
    1. Vice-President
    2. Prime Minister
    3. President
    4. Chief Justic of India
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  107. Question 107

    Which article of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the freedom of speech and expression?
    1. 19
    2. 21
    3. 18
    4. 25
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  108. Question 108

    Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the ________.
    1. Planning Commission
    2. Inter-State Council
    3. Election Commission
    4. Finance Commission
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  109. Question 109

    Ombudsman institution was originated in -
    1. Denmark
    2. Switzerland
    3. Sweden
    4. France
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  110. Question 110

    ‘Law and Order’ is included in the
    1. Concurrent List
    2. State List
    3. Union List
    4. None of the above
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  111. Question 111

    Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes ‘Untouchability’ and its practice in any form?
    1. Article 12
    2. Article 15
    3. Article 16
    4. Article 17
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  112. Question 112

    Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Centre State Relation related to Finance?
    1. Part-XI
    2. Part-XII
    3. Part-XIII
    4. Part-XIV
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  113. Question 113

    The system of the Indian Democracy is
    1. By-party and Parliamentary in nature
    2. Multi-party and Parliamentary in nature
    3. Presidential form of Government
    4. Monarchy form of Government
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  114. Question 114

    Financial instruments that generate proceeds for Investment in environmentally sustainable projects are called -
    1. Green Bonds
    2. Nature Bonds
    3. Low Emission Bonds
    4. Environmental Bonds
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  115. Question 115

    The major source of Revenue of 2024-25 was
    1. Corporate Tax
    2. Income Tax
    3. Goods and Service Tax
    4. Customs Duty
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  116. Question 116

    The earlier name of WTO was
    1. UNCTAD
    2. GATT
    3. UNIDO
    4. OECD
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  117. Question 117

    The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year
    1. 1930
    2. 1935
    3. 1947
    4. 951
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  118. Question 118

    When was the first Industrial Policy resolution taken in India?
    1. 1956
    2. 1947
    3. 1948
    4. 1951
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  119. Question 119

    India imports largest amount of Crude Oil from which country?
    1. Russia
    2. USA
    3. Saudi Arabia
    4. Iraq
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  120. Question 120

    Which among the following is termed ‘Hot Money’ ?
    1. FII
    2. FDI
    3. ADR
    4. GDR
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  121. Question 121

    Head Count Ratio is widely used in India as a measure of
    1. Poverty
    2. Inequality
    3. Income
    4. Population
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  122. Question 122

    In the latest ‘Ease of Doing Business Report 2019’ – India has secured
    1. 77th Rank
    2. 103rd Rank
    3. 101st Rank
    4. 67th Rank
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  123. Question 123

    Over __________ of India’s Crude Oil is imported.
    1. 50%
    2. 60%
    3. 70%
    4. 80%
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  124. Question 124

    The waves produced by motor boat sailing on water are
    1. transverse
    2. longitudinal
    3. longitudinal and transverse
    4. stationary
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  125. Question 125

    Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on:
    1. mass of the object only
    2. mass of the object and density of liquid only
    3. difference in the densities of the object and liquid
    4. mass and shape of the object only
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  126. Question 126

    In which of the following, heat loss is primarily NOT due to convection?
    1. Boiling water
    2. Land and sea breeze
    3. Circulation of air around blast furnace
    4. Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament
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  127. Question 127

    Which of the following has the highest velocity?
    1. Cosmic rays
    2. Light
    3. Electron
    4. Supersonic wave
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  128. Question 128

    The Hooke’s law is valid for
    1. only proportional region of the stress strain curve
    2. entire stress strain curve
    3. entire elastic region of the stress strain curve
    4. elastic as well as plastic region of the stress strain curve
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  129. Question 129

    The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is
    1. Protium
    2. Deuterium
    3. Tritium
    4. Hydronium
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  130. Question 130

    ‘Curie’ is the unit of -
    1. Radioactivity
    2. Temperature
    3. Heat
    4. Energy
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  131. Question 131

    Which one of the following is a fertilizer?
    1. N2
    2. O2
    3. P4
    4. NaNO3
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  132. Question 132

    L.P.G. is a mixture of -
    1. Methane and Butane
    2. Propane and Butane
    3. Ethane and Propane
    4. Ethane and Butane
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  133. Question 133

    The material used for safety from nuclear radiation is -
    1. Lead
    2. Platinum
    3. Iron
    4. Copper
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  134. Question 134

    Which among the following is called ‘Laughing Gas’ ?
    1. Nitric Oxide
    2. Nitrous Oxide
    3. Nitrogen Penta Oxide
    4. Nitrogen
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  135. Question 135

    Mg2+ is isoelectronic with
    1. Ca2+
    2. Na+
    3. Zn2+
    4. Cu+
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  136. Question 136

    The most malleable metal is
    1. Platinum
    2. Silver
    3. Iron
    4. Gold
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  137. Question 137

    Hydraulic press is based on
    1. Archimedes law
    2. Bernouli’s law
    3. Reynold’s law
    4. Pascal’s law
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  138. Question 138

    A person on a swing stands up. The time period of the swing will be -
    1. increase
    2. decrease
    3. remain the same
    4. become zero
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  139. Question 139

    The powerhouse of the cell is
    1. Nucleus
    2. Lysosome
    3. Mitochondria
    4. DNA
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  140. Question 140

    Plants receive nutrients from
    1. atmosphere
    2. chlorophyll
    3. soil
    4. light
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  141. Question 141

    Bio-gas consists of
    1. Carbon monoxide, Methene and Hydrogen
    2. Carbon dioxide, Methane and Hydrogen
    3. Carbon monoxide, Ethane and Hydrogen
    4. Carbon dioxide, Ethane and Hydrogen
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  142. Question 142

    Deficiency of Vitamin-D results in
    1. night blindness
    2. scurvy
    3. hair fall
    4. rickets
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  143. Question 143

    Which of the following process make direct use of oxygen?
    1. Glycolysis
    2. Fermentation
    3. Citric Acid Cycle
    4. Electron transport
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  144. Question 144

    Pearls are harvested from
    1. Prawn
    2. Pila
    3. Tuna
    4. Oyster
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  145. Question 145

    Which one of the following is a waterborne disease?
    1. Jaundice
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Rabies
    4. Arthritis
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  146. Question 146

    Hypokalaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________.
    1. Potassium
    2. Iodine
    3. Iron
    4. Calcium
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  147. Question 147

    Which of these is an excretory organ of the human body?
    1. Heart
    2. Skin
    3. Brain
    4. Muscles
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  148. Question 148

    Which part of the human respiratory system exchanges gases?
    1. Bronchi
    2. Trachea
    3. Bronchioles
    4. Alveoli
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  149. Question 149

    Statements:

    -i. All dens are hens.

    -ii. All pens are hens

    -iii. All yens are hens

    Conclusion:

    -i.Some pens are dens.

    -ii.Some yens are dens.
    1. Neither conclusion l nor ll follows
    2. Only conclusion ll follows
    3. nclusion: -i.Some pens are dens. -ii.Some yens are dens. A. Neither conclusion l nor ll follows B. Only conclusion ll follows C. Either conclusion l or ll follows
    4. Only conclusion l follows
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  150. Question 150

    Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes.

    Teacher, Singer, Mothers
    1. Option A
    2. Option B
    3. Option C
    4. Option D
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  151. Question 151

    What will be the angle between the hands of clock at 8 : 30?
    1. 15°
    2. 30°
    3. 45°
    4. 75°
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  152. Question 152

    If '-‘ denotes addition, ‘+' denotes subtraction, ‘×' denotes division and ÷ denotes multiplication, then 7 -10 × 5 ÷ 6 + 4 =?
    1. 3
    2. 12
    3. 15
    4. 9
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  153. Question 153

    In the following, three or four alternatives are same in a certain way out of four or five and so form a group. Find the odd word that does not belong to the group.
    1. Goat
    2. Dog
    3. Sheep
    4. Cow
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  154. Question 154

    If in a certain code language 'NEETA' is written as 'MVVGZ', then what word will be written for 'IZHSNR'?
    1. RASHMI
    2. VANDANA
    3. ANJALI
    4. POONAM
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  155. Question 155

    Pointing towards Sita, Nikhil said, "I am the only son of her mother's son". How is Sita related to Nikhil?
    1. Aunt
    2. Niece
    3. Mother
    4. Cousin
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  156. Question 156

    Two numbers are in the ratio 4:5. If their HCF is 16, then the sum of these two numbers is:
    1. 144
    2. 124
    3. 160
    4. 150
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  157. Question 157

    40% of A is 60% of B. Then, A: B will be
    1. 2 : 3
    2. 3 : 2
    3. 7 : 8
    4. 8 : 7
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  158. Question 158

    Which number will replace the question mark(?) in the following series?

    17, 37, 77, 157, 317, ?
    1. 683
    2. 637
    3. 649
    4. 634
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  159. Question 159

    In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
    1. 15
    2. 21
    3. 18
    4. 17
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  160. Question 160

    Two different positions of the same dice are shown below, the six faces of which are numbered 1 to 6. Find the number on the face opposite to the one having 2.
    1. 3
    2. 1
    3. 4
    4. 2
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  161. Question 161

    Six persons, L, M, N, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row facing towards the north (not necessarily in the same order). There are three persons between P and M.P is not at any of the ends. There are three persons between L and Q. N is to the left of R. L is at one of the ends. M is to the right of P. How many persons are sitting to the left of N?
    1. 4
    2. 1
    3. 3
    4. 2
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  162. Question 162

    Kartik started walking from a mall. First of all, he turned 8 towards the north direction. From there, he turned to the right and went 3 km. After that, he turned to the right and turned 5 km. After this he turned to the right and turned 7. What is the shortest distance from the mall to the last place of Kartik?
    1. 7 km
    2. 3 km
    3. 5 km
    4. 10 km
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  163. Question 163

    Rs 1,875 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A’s share is half of the combined share of B and C, and B’s share is one-fourth of the combined share of A and C. By what amount is C’s share more than that of A?
    1. Rs 500
    2. Rs 225
    3. Rs 250
    4. Rs 200
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  164. Question 164

    Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?

    8 ÷ 2 – 6 × 4 + 3 = 13
    1. – and +, 6 and 4
    2. ÷ and +, 4 and 8
    3. × and -, 8 and 6
    4. × and -, 2 and 6
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  165. Question 165

    The efficiencies of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. Working together, they can complete a task in 6 days. In how many days will A alone complete 20% of the task?
    1. 8
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. 4
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  166. Question 166

    A can complete a certain work in 35 days and B can complete the same work in 15 days. They worked together for 7 days, then B left the work. In how many days will A alone complete 60% of the remaining work?
    1. 10
    2. 7
    3. 8
    4. 15
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  167. Question 167

    In ∠A= 54°. If I ABC, Δ is the incentre of the triangle, then the measure of ∠BIC is;
    1. 148°
    2. 68°
    3. 117°
    4. 54°
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  168. Question 168

    If a + \frac{1}{a} = 3, then (a^4 + \frac{1}{a^4}) = \wn
    1. 77
    2. 47
    3. 81
    4. 27
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  169. Question 169

    On dividing a number by 38, the quotient is 24 and the remainder is 13, then the number is:
    1. 925
    2. 975
    3. 904
    4. 956
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  170. Question 170

    The greatest number of four digits which is exactly divisible by 24, 36 and 54 is:
    1. 9990
    2. 9924
    3. 9936
    4. 9960
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  171. Question 171

    Select the figure that will come next in the following series.
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  172. Question 172

    How many triangles are there in the following figure?
    1. 9
    2. 10
    3. 8
    4. 6
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  173. Question 173

    Triangle ABC is right-angled at B. If AB = 24 mm. and BC = 7 mm. then, AC = ?
    1. 31 mm.
    2. 21 mm.
    3. 35 mm.
    4. 25 mm.
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  174. Question 174

    India's first mission on moon Chandrayaan-1 was started from
    1. Srisailam
    2. Srikalahasti
    3. Srikakulam
    4. Sriharikota
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  175. Question 175

    India’s first 3D planetarium is located in_______.
    1. Bengaluru
    2. Mangalore
    3. Hyderabad
    4. Kochi
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  176. Question 176

    Who was India's first Chief of Defence Staff?
    1. Ajit Doval
    2. Gopal Gurunath Bewoor
    3. Bipin Rawat
    4. Sam Manekshaw
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  177. Question 177

    FIFA was established in ______.
    1. Italy
    2. France
    3. England
    4. Spain
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  178. Question 178

    The Test of My Life is an autobiography of:
    1. Yuvraj Singh
    2. Sachin Tendulkar
    3. MS Dhoni
    4. Gautam Gambhir
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  179. Question 179

    The Typhon missile system was developed by which country?
    1. India
    2. China
    3. United States
    4. France
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  180. Question 180

    What is the rank of India in the 2025 Global Peace Index (GPI)?
    1. 112th
    2. 113th
    3. 114th
    4. 115th
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  181. Question 181

    When is National Nutrition Week observed in India?
    1. 1–7 September
    2. 15–21 September
    3. 1–7 October
    4. 1–7 August
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  182. Question 182

    Where was India’s first portal for vulture conservation launched?
    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Rajasthan
    3. Uttar Pradesh
    4. Assam
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  183. Question 183

    Where was National Ayush Mission (NAM) Summit 2025 held?
    1. New Delhi
    2. Hyderabad
    3. Bengaluru
    4. Chennai
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  184. Question 184

    Which tax rate was abolished under the recently announced GST 2.O?
    1. 5%, 28%
    2. 12%, 18%
    3. 5%, 18%
    4. 12%, 28%
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  185. Question 185

    Where was 28th National Conference on e- Governance (NCeG) 2025 held?
    1. New Delhi
    2. Indore
    3. Visakhapatnam
    4. Dehradun
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  186. Question 186

    The Oju hydroelectric project is proposed for the construction on which river?
    1. Dibang
    2. Subansiri
    3. Manas
    4. Lohit
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  187. Question 187

    Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in which state?
    1. Telangana
    2. Odisha
    3. Jharkhand
    4. Maharashtra
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  188. Question 188

    Which cricket team won Ranji Trophy title 2025-26?
    1. Jammu and Kashmir
    2. Karnataka
    3. Madhya Pradesh
    4. Saurashtra
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  189. Question 189

    Which Indian state recorded the highest GST growth of 37% during FY 2025–26 (up to December 2025)?
    1. Assam
    2. Sikkim
    3. Nagaland
    4. Manipur
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  190. Question 190

    India’s first lighthouse on an inland waterway is being constructed on which river?
    1. Ganga
    2. Narmada
    3. Godavari
    4. Brahmaputra
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  191. Question 191

    Which state is the host of Khelo India Tribal Games (KITG) 2026?
    1. Jharkhand
    2. Odisha
    3. Rajasthan
    4. Chhattisgarh
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  192. Question 192

    India’s first fully operational ‘Ring Metro’ was inaugurated in which city?
    1. Mumbai
    2. Delhi
    3. Hyderabad
    4. Bengaluru
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  193. Question 193

    What is the name of newly announced third district of Goa?
    1. Mandovi
    2. Zuari
    3. Kushavati
    4. Chandrapur
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  194. Question 194

    India’s first government hospital-based Artificial Intelligence (AI) clinic was inaugurated in which city?
    1. Greater Noida (UP)
    2. Bengaluru
    3. Mumbai
    4. Chennai
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  195. Question 195

    The headquartered city of OPEC+ (a group of major oil-exporting countries) is -
    1. Riyadh
    2. Geneva
    3. Vienna
    4. Paris
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  196. Question 196

    The Board of Peace is an initiative of which country
    1. USA
    2. China
    3. France
    4. Italy
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  197. Question 197

    The European Atomic Energy Community (Euratom) was established under which treaty?
    1. Maastricht Treaty, 1992
    2. Lisbon Treaty, 2007
    3. Paris Treaty, 1951
    4. Treaty of Rome, 1957
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  198. Question 198

    Which state government has implemented the Uniform Civil Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2026?
    1. Uttarakhand
    2. Madhya Pradesh
    3. Gujarat
    4. Rajasthan
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